Questions of Cisco Certified Network Associate (200-301 CCNA): Part 1
Q.1 Which two options are the best reasons to use an IPV4 private IP space? (Choose two.)
A. to enable intra-enterprise communication
B. to implement NAT
C. to connect applications
D. to conserve global address space
E. to manage routing overhead
Answer: A, D
Q.2 Refer to the exhibit. When PC1 sends a packet to PC2, the packet has which source and destination IP address when it arrives at interface Gi0/0 on router R2?
A. source 192.168.10.10 and destination 10.10.2.2
B. source 192.168.20.10 and destination 192.168.20.1
C. source 192.168.10.10 and destination 192.168.20.10
D. source 10.10.1.1 and destination 10.10.2.2
Answer:C
Q.3 What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?
A. They support an inline optical attenuator to enhance signal strength
B. They accommodate single-mode and multi-mode in a single module
C. They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable
D. They offer reliable bandwidth up to 100 Mbps in half duplex mode
Answer:C
Q.4 What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two.)
A. handles requests from multiple workstations at the same time
B. achieves redundancy by exclusively using virtual server clustering
C. housed solely in a data center that is dedicated to a single client achieves redundancy by exclusively using virtual server clustering
D. runs the same operating system in order to communicate with other servers
E. runs applications that send and retrieve data for workstations that make requests
Answer: A, E
Q.5 Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture?
A. enforcing routing policies
B. marking interesting traffic for data policies
C. applying security policies
D. attaching users to the edge of the network
Answer: A
Q.6 What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device?
A. to transmit wireless traffic between hosts
B. to analyse traffic and drop unauthorized traffic from the Internet
C. to forward traffic within the same broadcast domain
D. to pass traffic between different networks
Answer:D
Q.7 Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two.)
A. Provide uninterrupted forwarding service
B. Inspect packets for malicious activity
C. Ensure timely data transfer between layers
D. Provide direct connectivity for end user devices
E. Police traffic that is sent to the edge of the network
Answer: A, C
Q.8 What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency?
A. different nonoverlapping channels
B. one overlapping channel
C. one nonoverlapping channel
D. different overlapping channels
Answer: A
Q.9 A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software that is only used occasionally. Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend?
A. infrastructure-as-a-service
B. platform-as-a-service
C. business process as service to support different types of service
D. software-as-a-service
Answer: D
Q.10 What are two functions of a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.)
A. acts as a central point for association and authentication servers
B. selects the best route between networks on a WAN
C. moves packets within a VLAN
D. moves packets between different VLANs
E. makes forwarding decisions based on the MAC address of a packet
Answer: C, E
Q.11 An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GHz access points?
A. Client Band Select
B. Re-Anchor Roamed Clients
C. OEAP Spilt Tunnel
D. 11ac MU-MIMO
Answer: A
Q.12 Which networking function occurs on the data plane?
A. processing inbound SSH management traffic
B. sending and receiving OSPF Hello packets
C. facilitates spanning-tree elections
D. forwarding remote client/server traffic
Answer: D
Q.13 Under which condition is TCP preferred over UDP?
A. UDP is used when low latency is optimal, and TCP is used when latency is tolerable.
B. TCP is used when dropped data is more acceptable, and UDP is used when data is accepted out-of-order.
C. TCP is used when data reliability is critical, and UDP is used when missing packets are acceptable.
D. UDP is used when data is highly interactive, and TCP is used when data is time-sensitive.
Answer: C
Q.14 A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two.)
A. input errors
B. frame
C. giants
D. CRC
E. runts
Answer: A, D
Q.15 DRAG DROP -
Drag and drop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto their primary transmission protocols on the right.
Select and Place:
Answer:
Q.16 How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?
A. TCP uses the three-way handshake, and UDP does not guarantee message delivery.
B. TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgment packets.
C. UDP provides reliable message transfer, and TCP is a connectionless protocol.
D. UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK, and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK, and ACK bits.
Answer: A
Q.17 Which 802.11 frame type is Association Response?
A. management
B. protected frame
C. action
D. control
Answer: A
Q.18 In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?
A. A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them.
B. A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks.
C. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch.
D. A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch.
Answer: C
Q. 19
R1#sh ip ro
Gateway of last is 10.10.10.18 to network 0.0.0.0
10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 4 subnets, 3 masks
C 10.10.10.0/30 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/1
O 10.10.13.0/25 [110/6576] via 10.10.10.1, 06:58:21, FastEthernet0/1
C 10.10.10.16/30 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/24
O 10.10.13.144/28 [110/110] via 10.10.10.1, 06:58:21, FastEthernet0/1
B* 0.0.0.0/0 [20/0] via 10.10.10.18, 01:17:58
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32?
A. default route
B. network route
C. host route
D. floating static route
Answer: B
Q.20 What identifies the functionality of virtual machines?
A. The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources.
B. Each hypervisor supports a single virtual machine and a single software switch.
C. The hypervisor virtualizes physical components including CPU, memory, and storage.
D. Virtualized servers run efficiently when physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor.
Answer: C
Q.21 Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?
A. ipv6 address dhcp
B. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::/64 eui-64
C. ipv6 address autoconfig
D. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::2/64 link-local
Answer:C
Q.22 When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two.)
A. 2000::/3
B. 2002::5
C. FC00::/7
D. FF02::1
E. FF02::2
Answer:D, E
Q.23
Router1#show ip route
Gateway Of last resort is 10.10.11.2 to network 0.0.0.0
209.165.200.0/27 is subnetted, 1 subnets
B 209.165.200.224 [20/0] via 10.10.122, 03:22:14
209.165.201 0/27 is subnetted,...
